Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 03.07.2025 03:39

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why do many modern Hollywood films rely heavily on CGI and visual effects instead of actual sets? What is your opinion on this trend?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

NASA plans to build a giant radio telescope on the 'dark side' of the moon. Here's why. - Yahoo

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

US Steel workers see hope of job security in deal with Japan’s Nippon - Financial Times

There's no rule.